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NEW QUESTION 1
Company A has noticed abnormal behavior targeting their SQL server on the network from a rogue IP
address. The company uses the following internal IP address ranges: 188.8.131.52/24 for the corporate site and 184.108.40.206/24 for the remote site. The Telco router interface uses the 220.127.116.11/30 IP range.
Instructions: Click on the simulation button to refer to the Network Diagram for Company A. Click on Router 1, Router 2, and the Firewall to evaluate and configure each device.
Task 1: Display and examine the logs and status of Router 1, Router 2, and Firewall interfaces.
Task 2: Reconfigure the appropriate devices to prevent the attacks from continuing to target the SQL server and other servers on the corporate network.
- A. Check the answer belowWe have traffic coming from two rogue IP addresses: 18.104.22.168 and 22.214.171.124 (both in the 126.96.36.199/24 subnet) going to IPs in the corporate site subnet (188.8.131.52/24) and the remote site subnet (184.108.40.206/24). We need to Deny (block) this traffic at the firewall by ticking the following two checkboxes:
- B. Check the answer belowWe have traffic coming from two rogue IP addresses: 220.127.116.11 and 18.104.22.168 (both in the 22.214.171.124/24 subnet) going to IPs in the corporate site subnet (126.96.36.199/24) and the remote site subnet (188.8.131.52/24). We need to Deny (block) this traffic at the firewall by ticking the following two checkboxes:
NEW QUESTION 2
A security analyst is troubleshooting a scenario in which an operator should only be allowed to reboot remote hosts but not perform other activities. The analyst inspects the following portions of different configuration files:
Configuration file 1: Operator ALL=/sbin/reboot Configuration file 2:
Command=”/sbin/shutdown now”, no-x11-forwarding, no-pty, ssh-dss Configuration file 3:
Which of the following explains why an intended operator cannot perform the intended action?
- A. The sudoers file is locked down to an incorrect command
- B. SSH command shell restrictions are misconfigured
- C. The passwd file is misconfigured
- D. The SSH command is not allowing a pty session
NEW QUESTION 3
An enterprise must ensure that all devices that connect to its networks have been previously approved. The solution must support dual factor mutual authentication with strong identity assurance. In order to reduce costs and administrative overhead, the security architect wants to outsource identity proofing and second factor digital delivery to the third party. Which of the following solutions will address the enterprise requirements?
- A. Implementing federated network access with the third party.
- B. Using a HSM at the network perimeter to handle network device access.
- C. Using a VPN concentrator which supports dual factor via hardware tokens.
- D. Implementing 802.1x with EAP-TTLS across the infrastructur
IEEE 802.1X (also known as Dot1x) is an IEEE Standard for Port-based Network Access Control (PNAC). It is part of the IEEE 802.1 group of networking protocols. It provides an authentication mechanism to devices wishing to attach to a LAN or WLAN.
802.1X authentication involves three parties: a supplicant, an authenticator, and an authentication server. The supplicant is a client device (such as a laptop) that wishes to attach to the LAN/WLAN - though the term 'supplicant' is also used interchangeably to refer to the software running on the client that provides credentials to the authenticator. The authenticator is a network device, such as an Ethernet switch or wireless access point; and the authentication server is typically a host running software supporting the RADIUS and EAP protocols.
The authenticator acts like a security guard to a protected network. The supplicant (i.e., client device) is not allowed access through the authenticator to the protected side of the network until the supplicant’s identity has been validated and authorized. An analogy to this is providing a valid visa at the airport's arrival immigration before being allowed to enter the country. With 802.1X port-based authentication, the supplicant provides credentials, such as user name/password or digital
certificate, to the authenticator, and the authenticator forwards the credentials to the authentication server for verification. If the authentication server determines the credentials are valid, the supplicant (client device) is allowed to access resources located on the protected side of the network.
EAP-TTLS (Tunneled Transport Layer Security) is designed to provide authentication that is as strong as EAP-TLS, but it does not require that each user be issued a certificate. Instead, only the authentication servers are issued certificates. User authentication is performed by password, but the password credentials are transported in a securely encrypted tunnel established based upon the
server certificates. Incorrect Answers:
A: Federated network access provides user access to networks by using a single logon. The logon is authenticated by a party that is trusted to all the networks. It does not ensure that all devices that connect to its networks have been previously approved.
B: A hardware security module (HSM) is a physical computing device that safeguards and manages digital keys for strong authentication and provides cryptoprocessing. It does not ensure that all devices that connect to its networks have been previously approved.
C: A VPN concentrator provides VPN connections and is typically used for creating site-to-site VPN architectures. It does not ensure that all devices that connect to its networks have been previously approved.
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NEW QUESTION 4
Which of the following describes a risk and mitigation associated with cloud data storage?
- A. Risk: Shared hardware caused data leakage Mitigation: Strong encryption at rest
- B. Risk: Offsite replication Mitigation: Multi-site backups
- C. Risk: Data loss from de-duplication Mitigation: Dynamic host bus addressing
- D. Risk: Combined data archivingMitigation: Two-factor administrator authentication
With cloud data storage, the storage provider will have large enterprise SANs providing large pools of storage capacity. Portions of the storage pools are assigned to customers. The risk is that multiple customers are storing their data on the same physical hardware storage devices. This presents a risk (usually a very small risk, but a risk all the same) of other customers using the same cloud storage hardware being able to view your data.
The mitigation of the risk is to encrypt your data stored on the SAN. Then the data would be unreadable even if another customer was able to access it.
B: Offsite replication is used for disaster recovery purposes. It is not considered to be a risk as long as the data is secure in the other site. Multi-site backups are not a risk mitigation.
C: Data loss from de-duplication is not considered to be a risk. De-duplication removes duplicate copies of data to reduce the storage space required for the dat
A. Dynamic host bus addressing is not a risk mitigation.
D: Combined data archiving is not considered to be a risk. The archived data would be less accessible to other customers than the live data on the shared storage.
NEW QUESTION 5
An educational institution would like to make computer labs available to remote students. The labs are used for various IT networking, security, and programming courses. The requirements are: Each lab must be on a separate network segment.
Labs must have access to the Internet, but not other lab networks.
Student devices must have network access, not simple access to hosts on the lab networks. Students must have a private certificate installed before gaining access.
Servers must have a private certificate installed locally to provide assurance to the students. All students must use the same VPN connection profile.
Which of the following components should be used to achieve the design in conjunction with directory services?
- A. L2TP VPN over TLS for remote connectivity, SAML for federated authentication, firewalls between each lab segment
- B. SSL VPN for remote connectivity, directory services groups for each lab group, ACLs on routing equipment
- C. IPSec VPN with mutual authentication for remote connectivity, RADIUS for authentication, ACLs on network equipment
- D. Cloud service remote access tool for remote connectivity, OAuth for authentication, ACL on routing equipment
IPSec VPN with mutual authentication meets the certificates requirements. RADIUS can be used with the directory service for the user authentication.
ACLs (access control lists) are the best solution for restricting access to network hosts. Incorrect Answers:
A: This solution has no provision for restricting access to hosts on the lab networks. B: This solution has no provision for restricting access to hosts on the lab networks. D: This solution has no provision for restricting access to hosts on the lab networks.
NEW QUESTION 6
The Chief Information Officer (CIO) is reviewing the IT centric BIA and RA documentation. The documentation shows that a single 24 hours downtime in a critical business function will cost the business $2.3 million. Additionally, the business unit which depends on the critical business function has determined that there is a high probability that a threat will materialize based on historical data. The CIO’s budget does not allow for full system hardware replacement in case of a catastrophic failure, nor does it allow for the purchase of additional compensating controls. Which of the following should the CIO recommend to the finance director to minimize financial loss?
- A. The company should mitigate the risk.
- B. The company should transfer the risk.
- C. The company should avoid the risk.
- D. The company should accept the ris
To transfer the risk is to defilect it to a third party, by taking out insurance for example. Incorrect Answers:
A: Mitigation is not an option as the CIO’s budget does not allow for the purchase of additional compensating controls.
C: Avoiding the risk is not an option as the business unit depends on the critical business function. D: Accepting the risk would not reduce financial loss.
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, p. 218
NEW QUESTION 7
Given the following output from a local PC:
Which of the following ACLs on a stateful host-based firewall would allow the PC to serve an intranet website?
- A. Allow 172.30.0.28:80 -> ANY
- B. Allow 172.30.0.28:80 -> 172.30.0.0/16
- C. Allow 172.30.0.28:80 -> 172.30.0.28:443
- D. Allow 172.30.0.28:80 -> 172.30.0.28:53
NEW QUESTION 8
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) for an organization wants to develop custom IDS rulesets faster, prior to new rules being released by IDS vendors. Which of the following BEST meets this objective?
- A. Identify a third-party source for IDS rules and change the configuration on the applicable IDSs to pull in the new rulesets
- B. Encourage cybersecurity analysts to review open-source intelligence products and threat database to generate new IDS rules based on those sources
- C. Leverage the latest TCP- and UDP-related RFCs to arm sensors and IDSs with appropriate heuristicsfor anomaly detection
- D. Use annual hacking conventions to document the latest attacks and threats, and then develop IDS rules to counter those threats
NEW QUESTION 9
A deployment manager is working with a software development group to assess the security of a
new version of the organization’s internally developed ERP tool. The organization prefers to not perform assessment activities following deployment, instead focusing on assessing security throughout the life cycle. Which of the following methods would BEST assess the security of the product?
- A. Static code analysis in the IDE environment
- B. Penetration testing of the UAT environment
- C. Vulnerability scanning of the production environment
- D. Penetration testing of the production environment
- E. Peer review prior to unit testing
NEW QUESTION 10
A financial consulting firm recently recovered from some damaging incidents that were associated with malware installed via rootkit. Post-incident analysis is ongoing, and the incident responders and systems administrators are working to determine a strategy to reduce the risk of recurrence. The firm’s systems are running modern operating systems and feature UEFI and TPMs. Which of the following technical options would provide the MOST preventive value?
- A. Update and deploy GPOs
- B. Configure and use measured boot
- C. Strengthen the password complexity requirements
- D. Update the antivirus software and definitions
NEW QUESTION 11
ABC Corporation has introduced token-based authentication to system administrators due to the risk of password compromise. The tokens have a set of HMAC counter-based codes and are valid until they are used. Which of the following types of authentication mechanisms does this statement describe?
- A. TOTP
- B. PAP
- C. CHAP
- D. HOTP
The question states that the HMAC counter-based codes and are valid until they are used. These are “one-time” use codes.
HOTP is an HMAC-based one-time password (OTP) algorithm.
HOTP can be used to authenticate a user in a system via an authentication server. Also, if some more steps are carried out (the server calculates subsequent OTP value and sends/displays it to the user who checks it against subsequent OTP value calculated by his token), the user can also authenticate the validation server.
Both hardware and software tokens are available from various vendors. Hardware tokens implementing OATH HOTP tend to be significantly cheaper than their competitors based on proprietary algorithms. Some products can be used for strong passwords as well as OATH HOTP. Software tokens are available for (nearly) all major mobile/smartphone platforms.
A: TOTP is Time-based One-time Password. This is similar to the one-time password system used in this question. However, TOTPs expire after a period of time. In this question, the passwords (codes) expire after first use regardless of the timing of the first use.
B: PAP (Password Authentication Protocol) is a simple authentication protocol in which the user name and password is sent to a remote access server in a plaintext (unencrypted) form. PAP is not what is described in this question.
C: CHAP (Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol) is an authentication protocol that provides protection against replay attacks by the peer through the use of an incrementally changing identifier and of a variable challenge-value. CHAP requires that both the client and server know the plaintext of the secret, although it is never sent over the network. CHAP is not what is described in this question.
NEW QUESTION 12
A security engineer is designing a system in which offshore, outsourced staff can push code from the development environment to the production environment securely. The security engineer is concerned with data loss, while the business does not want to slow down its development process. Which of the following solutions BEST balances security requirements with business need?
- A. Set up a VDI environment that prevents copying and pasting to the local workstations ofoutsourced staff members
- B. Install a client-side VPN on the staff laptops and limit access to the development network
- C. Create an IPSec VPN tunnel from the development network to the office of the outsourced staff
- D. Use online collaboration tools to initiate workstation-sharing sessions with local staff who have access to the development network
NEW QUESTION 13
A security administrator notices a recent increase in workstations becoming compromised by malware. Often, the malware is delivered via drive-by downloads, from malware hosting websites, and is not being detected by the corporate antivirus. Which of the following solutions would provide the BEST protection for the company?
- A. Increase the frequency of antivirus downloads and install updates to all workstations.
- B. Deploy a cloud-based content filter and enable the appropriate category to prevent further infections.
- C. Deploy a WAF to inspect and block all web traffic which may contain malware and explogts.
- D. Deploy a web based gateway antivirus server to intercept viruses before they enter the networ
The undetected malware gets delivered to the company via drive-by and malware hosing websites. Display filters and Capture filters when deployed on the cloud-based content should provide the protection required.
A: The company already has an antivirus application that is not detecting the malware, increasing the frequency of antivirus downloads and installing the updates will thus not address the issue of the drive-by downloads and malware hosting websites.
C: A WAF is designed to sit between a web client and a web server to analyze OSI Layer 7 traffic; this will not provide the required protection in this case. WAFs are not 100% effective.
D: A web-based gateway antivirus is not going to negate the problem of drive-by downloads and malware hosting websites.
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 116, 405-406
NEW QUESTION 14
A company has noticed recently that its corporate information has ended up on an online forum. An investigation has identified that internal employees are sharing confidential corporate information on a daily basis. Which of the following are the MOST effective security controls that can be implemented to stop the above problem? (Select TWO).
- A. Implement a URL filter to block the online forum
- B. Implement NIDS on the desktop and DMZ networks
- C. Security awareness compliance training for all employees
- D. Implement DLP on the desktop, email gateway, and web proxies
- E. Review of security policies and procedures
Security awareness compliance training for all employees should be implemented to educate employees about corporate policies and procedures for working with information technology (IT). Data loss prevention (DLP) should be implemented to make sure that users do not send sensitive or critical information outside the corporate network.
A: A URL filter will prevent users from accessing the online forum, but it will not prevent them from sharing confidential corporate information.
B: NIDS will monitor traffic to and from all devices on the network, perform an analysis of passing traffic on the entire subnet, and matches the traffic that is passed on the subnets to the library of known attacks. It will not prevent access to the online forum, or from sharing confidential corporate information.
E: The problem is that users are not adhering to the security policies and procedures, so reviewing them will not solve the problem.
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NEW QUESTION 15
An insurance company is looking to purchase a smaller company in another country. Which of the following tasks would the security administrator perform as part of the security due diligence?
- A. Review switch and router configurations
- B. Review the security policies and standards
- C. Perform a network penetration test
- D. Review the firewall rule set and IPS logs
IT security professionals should have a chance to review the security controls and practices of a company targeted for acquisition. Any irregularities that are found should be reported to management so that expenses and concerns are properly identified.
A: Due diligence entails ensuring controls implemented by an organization continues to provide the required level of protection. Reviewing switch and router configurations are not part of this process. C: Due diligence entails ensuring controls implemented by an organization continues to provide the required level of protection. Performing a network penetration test is not part of this process.
D: Due diligence entails ensuring controls implemented by an organization continues to provide the required level of protection. Reviewing the firewall rule set and IPS logs are not part of this process. References:
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 270, 332
NEW QUESTION 16
There have been several explogts to critical devices within the network. However, there is currently no process to perform vulnerability analysis. Which the following should the security analyst implement during production hours to identify critical threats and vulnerabilities?
- A. asset inventory of all critical devices
- B. Vulnerability scanning frequency that does not interrupt workflow
- C. Daily automated reports of explogted devices
- D. Scanning of all types of data regardless of sensitivity levels
NEW QUESTION 17
An engineer needs to provide access to company resources for several offshore contractors. The contractors require:
Access to a number of applications, including internal websites Access to database data and the ability to manipulate it
The ability to log into Linux and Windows servers remotely
Which of the following remote access technologies are the BEST choices to provide all of this access securely? (Choose two.)
- A. VTC
- B. VRRP
- C. VLAN
- D. VDI
- E. VPN
- F. Telnet
NEW QUESTION 18
An organization has implemented an Agile development process for front end web application development. A new security architect has just joined the company and wants to integrate security activities into the SDLC.
Which of the following activities MUST be mandated to ensure code quality from a security perspective? (Select TWO).
- A. Static and dynamic analysis is run as part of integration
- B. Security standards and training is performed as part of the project
- C. Daily stand-up meetings are held to ensure security requirements are understood
- D. For each major iteration penetration testing is performed
- E. Security requirements are story boarded and make it into the build
- F. A security design is performed at the end of the requirements phase
SDLC stands for systems development life cycle. An agile project is completed in small sections called iterations. Each iteration is reviewed and critiqued by the project team. Insights gained from the critique of an iteration are used to determine what the next step should be in the project. Each
project iteration is typically scheduled to be completed within two weeks.
Static and dynamic security analysis should be performed throughout the project. Static program analysis is the analysis of computer software that is performed without actually executing programs (analysis performed on executing programs is known as dynamic analysis). In most cases the analysis is performed on some version of the source code, and in the other cases, some form of the object code.
For each major iteration penetration testing is performed. The output of a major iteration will be a functioning part of the application. This should be penetration tested to ensure security of the application.
B: Security standards and training does not ensure code quality from a security perspective. The only way to ensure code quality is to test the code itself.
C: Ensuring security requirements are understood does not ensure code quality from a security perspective. The only way to ensure code quality is to test the code itself.
E: Storyboarding security requirements does not ensure code quality from a security perspective. The only way to ensure code quality is to test the code itself.
F: A security design does not ensure code quality from a security perspective. The only way to ensure code quality is to test the code itself.
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NEW QUESTION 19
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