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Online CRISC free questions and answers of New Version:

NEW QUESTION 1

The PRIMARY objective of The board of directors periodically reviewing the risk profile is to help ensure:

  • A. the risk strategy is appropriate
  • B. KRIs and KPIs are aligned
  • C. performance of controls is adequate
  • D. the risk monitoring process has been established

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 2

During the control evaluation phase of a risk assessment, it is noted that multiple controls are ineffective. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

  • A. Recommend risk remediation of the ineffective controls.
  • B. Compare the residual risk to the current risk appetite.
  • C. Determine the root cause of the control failures.
  • D. Escalate the control failures to senior management.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 3

Which of the following is MOST useful when communicating risk to management?

  • A. Risk policy
  • B. Audit report
  • C. Risk map
  • D. Maturity model

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 4

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that risk mitigation plans have been implemented effectively?

  • A. Self-assessments by process owners
  • B. Mitigation plan progress reports
  • C. Risk owner attestation
  • D. Change in the level of residual risk

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5

The PRIMARY benefit of maintaining an up-to-date risk register is that it helps to:

  • A. implement uniform controls for common risk scenarios.
  • B. ensure business unit risk is uniformly distributed.
  • C. build a risk profile for management review.
  • D. quantify the organization's risk appetite.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 6

Which of the following would provide executive management with the BEST information to make risk decisions as a result of a risk assessment?

  • A. A companion of risk assessment results to the desired state
  • B. A quantitative presentation of risk assessment results
  • C. An assessment of organizational maturity levels and readiness
  • D. A qualitative presentation of risk assessment results

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 7

Which of the following is MOST important to understand when developing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

  • A. KRI thresholds
  • B. Integrity of the source data
  • C. Control environment
  • D. Stakeholder requirements

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 8

Following a significant change to a business process, a risk practitioner believes the associated risk has been reduced. The risk practitioner should advise the risk owner to FIRST

  • A. review the key risk indicators.
  • B. conduct a risk analysis.
  • C. update the risk register
  • D. reallocate risk response resources.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 9

An organization's financial analysis department uses an in-house forecasting application for business projections. Who is responsible for defining access roles to protect the sensitive data within this application?

  • A. IT risk manager
  • B. IT system owner
  • C. Information security manager
  • D. Business owner

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 10

In an organization with a mature risk management program, which of the following would provide the BEST evidence that the IT risk profile is up to date?

  • A. Risk questionnaire
  • B. Risk register
  • C. Management assertion
  • D. Compliance manual

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 11

Which of the following activities should be performed FIRST when establishing IT risk management processes?

  • A. Collect data of past incidents and lessons learned.
  • B. Conduct a high-level risk assessment based on the nature of business.
  • C. Identify the risk appetite of the organization.
  • D. Assess the goals and culture of the organization.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 12

The PRIMARY purpose of using control metrics is to evaluate the:

  • A. amount of risk reduced by compensating controls.
  • B. amount of risk present in the organization.
  • C. variance against objectives.
  • D. number of incidents.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 13

A risk practitioner learns that the organization s industry is experiencing a trend of rising security incidents. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

  • A. Evaluate the relevance of the evolving threats.
  • B. Review past internal audit results.
  • C. Respond to organizational security threats.
  • D. Research industry published studies.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 14

A risk practitioner has determined that a key control does not meet design expectations. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

  • A. Document the finding in the risk register.
  • B. Invoke the incident response plan.
  • C. Re-evaluate key risk indicators.
  • D. Modify the design of the control.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 15

After identifying new risk events during a project, the project manager s NEXT step should be to:

  • A. determine if the scenarios need 10 be accepted or responded to.
  • B. record the scenarios into the risk register.
  • C. continue with a qualitative risk analysis.
  • D. continue with a quantitative risk analysis.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 16

Which of the following would BEST enable mitigation of newly identified risk factors related to internet of Things (loT)?

  • A. Introducing control procedures early in the life cycle
  • B. Implementing loT device software monitoring
  • C. Performing periodic risk assessments of loT
  • D. Performing secure code reviews

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 17

Which of the following techniques would be used during a risk assessment to demonstrate to stakeholders that all known alternatives were evaluated?

  • A. Control chart
  • B. Sensitivity analysis
  • C. Trend analysis
  • D. Decision tree

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 18

When using a third party to perform penetration testing, which of the following is the MOST important control to minimize operational impact?

  • A. Perform a background check on the vendor.
  • B. Require the vendor to sign a nondisclosure agreement.
  • C. Require the vendor to have liability insurance.
  • D. Clearly define the project scope

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 19

When collecting information to identify IT-related risk, a risk practitioner should FIRST focus on IT:

  • A. risk appetite.
  • B. security policies
  • C. process maps.
  • D. risk tolerance level

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 20

A business unit is updating a risk register with assessment results for a key project. Which of the following is MOST important to capture in the register?

  • A. The team that performed the risk assessment
  • B. An assigned risk manager to provide oversight
  • C. Action plans to address risk scenarios requiring treatment
  • D. The methodology used to perform the risk assessment

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 21

An organizations chief technology officer (CTO) has decided to accept the risk associated with the potential loss from a denial-of-service (DoS) attack. In this situation, the risk practitioner's BEST course of action is to:

  • A. identify key risk indicators (KRls) for ongoing monitoring
  • B. validate the CTO's decision with the business process owner
  • C. update the risk register with the selected risk response
  • D. recommend that the CTO revisit the risk acceptance decision.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 22

A risk practitioner observes that hardware failure incidents have been increasing over the last few months. However, due to built-in redundancy and fault-tolerant architecture, there have been no interruptions to business operations. The risk practitioner should conclude that:

  • A. a root cause analysis is required
  • B. controls are effective for ensuring continuity
  • C. hardware needs to be upgraded
  • D. no action is required as there was no impact

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 23

Which of the following BEST indicates the effectiveness of anti-malware software?

  • A. Number of staff hours lost due to malware attacks
  • B. Number of downtime hours in business critical servers
  • C. Number of patches made to anti-malware software
  • D. Number of successful attacks by malicious software

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 24
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