Apr 2016 updated: hit-001 comptia healthcare it technician exam

Exam Code: HIT-001 (Practice Exam Latest Test Questions VCE PDF)
Exam Name: CompTIA Healthcare IT Technician Exam
Certification Provider: CompTIA
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2016 Apr HIT-001 Study Guide Questions:

Q46. Which of the following pieces of legislation insures the privacy and security of personal health information? 

A. Patient Bill of Rights 




Answer: B 

Explanation: HIPPA is the legislation designed to insure the privacy and security of personal health information. 

Q47. In establishing the IT logistics between two universities engaged in joint medical research, you are most likely going to be governed by an MOU (Memorandum of Understanding) rather than an SLA. In addition to protecting the EPHI, what is the ultimate goal of the MOU? 

A. Engenders a mutual commitment to maintaining the highest level of medical care. 

B. Provides NIST with annual review method. 

C. Enables rapid transfer of data. 

D. Fulfills governing auspices need for institutional contractual language. 

Answer: C 

Explanation: The point of the MOU is to create a state of high trust between the signatories so that the research can occur unencumbered by concerns of EPHI leaks. An MOU is usually reserved for use between governmental agencies or educational institutions whereas an SLA governs business or individual entities. Answer: A is incorrect. MOU's don't discuss the level of medical care, though the ability to protect and communicate sensitive EPHI can aid that goal. Answer: D is incorrect. While an MOU does fit more the style of non-business entities like governmental agencies or educational organizations, it's "ultimate goal" is not it's language but its result. the ability to transfer data unencumbered by concerns about privacy leaks. Answer: B is incorrect. Though an MOU may fulfill certain recommendations provided by NIST, especially regarding security and contingency provisos, there is no such thing as a NIST annual review method. NIST recommends standards and guidelines in its publications based on HIPAA but is a non-regulatory agency that does not typically review individual organizations. 

Q48. How many devices can be connected to an IEEE 1394 port? 

A. 1 

B. 63 

C. 8 

D. 127 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 1394, also known as Firewire, is a standard for a high-speed (up to 400 Mbps) communication serial bus that provides enhanced PC connectivity for a wide range of devices. These devices include consumer audiovisual components, traditional PC storage devices, and handheld devices. An IEEE 1394 port provides a Plug and Play-compatible expansion interface for PCs and allows up to 63 devices to be connected. Answer: D is incorrect. A single USB port allows up to 127 devices to be connected. 

Q49. A member of your family is suffering from Alzheimer's Disease and is unable to care for themselves at home. To which of the following healthcare facilities would you contact for long term care of this individual? 

A. Subacute Care Facility 

B. Nonacute Care Facililty 

C. Ambulatory Care Facility 

D. Acute Care Facility 

Answer: B 

Explanation: A non acute care facility, often referred to as a long term care facility, is a type of facility is used for individuals who suffer from long term illnesses that required hospital stays of longer than 30 days. Answer: C is incorrect. Ambulatory care facility is incorrect as this facility offers a variety of outpatient services which is directly overseen by a hospital, but patients to do not require a stay in the hospital. 

Q50. Which of the following ports is used by the Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP)? 

A. 115 

B. 23 

C. 80 

D. 53 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP) uses port 115. The Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP), also called SSH File Transfer Protocol, is a network protocol that provides file access, file transfer, and file management functionality over any reliable data stream. The SFTP was designed by the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) as an extension of the Secure Shell protocol (SSH) version 2.0 to provide secure file transfer capability, but is also intended to be usable with other protocols as well. Answer: C is incorrect. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) protocol uses port 80. Answer: D is incorrect. Domain Name System (DNS) uses port 53. Answer: B is incorrect. Telnet uses port 23. Telnet is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the Telnet server service. Telnet allows users to communicate with a remote computer, offers the ability to run programs remotely, and facilitates remote administration. The Telnet utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software to access files. It uses TCP port 23 by default. 

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Q51. According to the USB 2.0 standard, what should be the maximum cable length between devices? 

A. 4.5 meters 

B. 10 meters 

C. 5 meters 

D. 1 meter 

Answer: C 

Explanation: According to the USB 2.0 standard, the maximum cable length between devices should be 5 meters. 

Q52. Which of the following statements is correct about PGP? 

A. It authenticates an email origin. 

B. It encrypts a Telnet session. 

C. It transfers files. 

D. It installs new software onto a router. 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) is an encryption method that uses public-key encryption to encrypt and digitally sign e-mail messages during communication between e-mail clients. Public key encryption is an asymmetric scheme that uses a pair of keys for encryption. the public key encrypts data and the corresponding secret key (private key) decrypts the data. For digital signatures, the process is reversed. the sender uses the secret key (private key) to create a unique electronic number that can be read by anyone who possesses the corresponding public key, which verifies that the message is truly from the sender. PGP is effective, easy to use, and free. Therefore, it is one of the most common ways to protect messages on the Internet. 

Q53. The HIPAA act prevents disclosure of health information to which of the following? 

A. The Patient 

B. Patient Representatives 

C. Department of Health and Human Services 

D. Patient Employer 

Answer: D 

Explanation: HIPAA act does not allow a patient's health information to be disclosed to a patients employer. Answer: A is incorrect. The Patient is incorrect as the patient has a right to know any and all information pertinent to his/her medical care. Answer: B is incorrect. Patient representatives is incorrect as health information can be disclosed to anyone a patient designates to represent them such as a family member or attorney. Answer: C is incorrect. Department of Health and Human Services is incorrect as patient information may be disclosed to the Department of Health and Human Services when it is conducting a compliance investigation or review or enforcement action. 

Q54. In medical terminology, the suffix -itis is used to describe which of the following conditions? 

A. Study of 

B. Inflammation 

C. Opening 

D. Disease 

Answer: B 

Explanation: In medical terminology, any word that ends with the suffix -itis refers to an inflammatory condition. Examples are arthritis means inflammation of a joint, laryngitis means inflammation of the larynx, and gastritis means inflammation of the stomach or stomach lining. Answer: D is incorrect. Disease is incorrect as any condition that refers to a disease process is accompanied by the suffix -osis, example diverticulosis is as disease of the diverticulum. Answer: C is incorrect. Opening is incorrect as any medical condition that refers to opening ends with the suffix -otomy, example thoracotomy means an opening was made in the thorax. Answer: A is incorrect. Study of is incorrect as any term referring to the stdy of anything end with the suffix -ology, example Radiology is the study of radiation, cardiology is the study of the heart. 

Q55. You have been the victim of a house fire that has left you with burns over a significant percentage of your body. Which of the following type of medical facilities would you choose to treat your condition? 

A. Specialty Hospital 

B. Rehabilitation Hospital 

C. Psychiatric Hospital 

D. General Hospital 

Answer: A 

Explanation: A specialty hospital is a type of hospital that is required to provide treatment for specific disorders such as cancer, burns or women's health. Answer: D is incorrect. General Hospital is incorrect as this type of hospital is required to provide diagnosis and treatment for medical services which include Radiology, laboratory services and surgical services. Answer: B is incorrect. Rehabilitation hospitals is incorrect as this type of hospital is required to provide diagnosis, treatment, restorative and adjustment services for individuals who are disabled. Answer: C is incorrect. Psychiatric hospital is incorrect as this type of hospital is required to provide diagnosis and treatment for individuals who are diagnosed with mental illness. 

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Q56. While on the job in a healthcare facility, you notice a group of individuals touring and inspecting the facility, the group is evaluating and insuring the facility is providing the highest quality of care. Which agency is performing this inspection? 

A. Food and Drug Administration 

B. The Joint Commission 

C. Occupational Safety and Health Administration 

D. Department of Health and Human Services 

Answer: B 

Explanation: The purpose of The Joint Commission is to continuously improve health care for the public by evaluating health care organizations and inspiring them to excel in providing safe and effective care of the highest quality and value. This agency also distributes accreditation and certifications to those health care organizations who meet the requirements of The Joint Commission. Answer: C is incorrect. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is as the purpose of this agency is to ensure safe and healthful working conditions for working men and women by setting and enforcing standards and by providing training, outreach, education and assistance. Answer: A is incorrect. Food and Drug Administration is as the purpose of this agency is to protect the public health by assuring the safety, efficacy, and security of human and veterinary drugs, biological products, medical devices, our nation's food supply, cosmetics, and products that emit radiation, and by regulating the manufacture, marketing, and distribution of tobacco products. Answer: D is incorrect. Department of Health and Human Services is as this agency is protecting the health of all Americans and providing essential human services, especially for those who are least able to help themselves. 

Q57. You are selecting memory to put in to a laptop. Which of the following types of RAM chips would you most likely select? 

A. 184 PIN 

B. 72 PIN 

C. 240 PIN 

D. 144 PIN 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Both MicroDIMM and SO-DIMM come in a 144 pin configuration, and are used for laptops. 

Q58. You are asked to design an information system in which the client-server platform is based on the following schematic. What type of architecture is incorporated within your information system? 

A. LAN Technology 

B. WAN Technology 

C. Three-Tier Architecture 

D. Two-Tier Architecture 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Two-tier architecture is the client-server platform that consists simply with a PC interfaced with a database. Answer: A is incorrect. LAN Technology is incorrect as this is a mode of communication, not a client-server platform, that this refers to communication devices in a small geographic area such as PC and printer or PC and PC within a facility. Answer: B is incorrect. WAN Technology is incorrect as as this is a mode of communication, not a client-server platform, that allows for communication among a large geographic environment such as two or more LANs connected via a telephone system or satellite. Answer: C is incorrect. Three tier architecture is incorrect as this client server platform consists of a PC, database server and an application server that contains software to process the data. 

Q59. A 44 year old female presents to the emergency room with chest pain. She is denied care because she is uninsured. Which of the following pieces of legislation has been violated? 




D. Patient Bill of Rights 

Answer: A 

Explanation: The Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA) is the piece of legislation legally obligates health care facilities to provide emergent care regardless of citizenship, legal status or ability to pay. Answer: B is incorrect. HIPPA is incorrect as this legislation is designed to insure the privacy and security of personal health information. 

Q60. Which of the following refers to medical information that is protected, but contains nothing regarding the patient's illness or treatment? 

A. Individually Identifiable Health Information 

B. Demographic Health Information 

C. Archived Health Information 

D. De-Indentified Health Information 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Demographic Health Information is a part of individually identifiable health information, it contains no information regarding and individual's illness or treatment. Demographic information is the patient's name, date of birth, address, social security number, insurance information and contact information. Answer: A is incorrect. Individually Identifiable Health Information is incorrect as this is information, including demographic information that relates to the individual's past, present or future physical or mental health or condition, the provision of health care to an individual or the past, present or future payment of health care provisions. Answer: D is incorrect. De-identified health information is incorrect as this information requires removal of all data in which a patient can be identified such as name, date of birth, social security number and address. Answer: C is incorrect. Archived Health Information is incorrect as this is health information that has been stored on some sort of media such as a compact disc, dvd or videotape. 

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