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NEW QUESTION 1

Which of the following is the main purpose of the component build and integration strategy?

  • A. to ensure that all of the small components are tested
  • B. to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
  • C. to ensure that the integration testing can be performed by a small team
  • D. to specify how the software should be divided into components
  • E. to specify which components to combine when, and how many at once

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 2

The four test levels defined for a common V-model testing approach are:

  • A. Unit, integration, system and maintenance.
  • B. Functional, glass box, incremental and maintenance.
  • C. Component, integration, system and acceptance.
  • D. Unit, component, functional and alpha/beta.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 3

When is testing complete?

  • A. When time and budget are exhausted.
  • B. When there is enough information for sponsors to make an informed decision about release.
  • C. When there are no remaining high priority defects outstanding.
  • D. When every data combination has been exercised successfully.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Sometimes time/money does signify the end of testing, but it is really complete when everything that was set out in advance has been achieved.

NEW QUESTION 4

Which of the following characteristics is most likely to promote effective software testing? [K1]

  • A. Independence from the production process
  • B. A belief that programmers always make mistakes
  • C. Knowledge of the number of defects typically found in a program
  • D. Confidence that the next stage will find defects missed at this stage

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 5

You have been asked to write a testing strategy for the company. Which statement best explains how risk can be addressed within the testing strategy? 1 credit

  • A. A test strategy should address identified generic product risks and present a process for mitigating those risks in line with the testing policy.
  • B. A test strategy identifies the specific product for a project risk and defines the approach for the test project.
  • C. A test strategy is derived from the test policy and describes the way risk assessments are performed in projects.
  • D. A test strategy is the result of a project risk analysis and defines the approach and resources for testing.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 6

Your task is to compile a test execution schedule for the current release of software. The system specification states the following logical dependencies:
• An admin user must create/amend/delete a standard user.
• A standard user is necessary to perform all other actions.
The test plan requires that re-tests must be performed first, followed by the highest priority tests. To save time, the test plan states that tests should be scheduled to create test data for the subsequent tests in the schedule.
The following test cases have been designed, with an indication of priority (1 being the highest priority) and whether the test has previously failed.
ISEB-SWT2 dumps exhibit
Which test execution schedule meets the test plan requirements and logical dependencies?

  • A. a, d, c, b, e
  • B. a, c, b, d, e
  • C. e, a, b, c, d
  • D. e, a, d, c, b

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 7

Which of the following statements are true?
(i) Defects are likely to be found earlier in the development process by using reviews rather than static analysis.
(ii) Walkthroughs require code but static analysis does not require code.
(iii) Informal reviews can be performed on code and specifications.
(iv) Dynamic techniques are generally used before static techniques.
(v) Dynamic techniques can only be used after code is ready to be executed.

  • A. (i), (ii), (vi).
  • B. (ii), (iii), (v).
  • C. (i), (iv), (v).
  • D. (i), (iii), (v).

Answer: D

Explanation:
The other answers are incorrect because:
(ii) Walkthroughs do not require code and static analysis does require code.
(iv) Static techniques do not execute the code and therefore can be run before and after the code is ready for execution.

NEW QUESTION 8

Which activities form part of test planning?
i) Developing test cases.
ii) Defining the overall approach to testing.
iii) Assigning resources.
iv) Building the test environment.
v) Writing test conditions.

  • A. i, ii & iv are true, iii & v are false.
  • B. ii & iii are true, i, iv & v are false.
  • C. iv & v are true, i, ii & iii are false.
  • D. i, ii & iii are true iv & v are false.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 9

Which of the following team roles would be most appropriate to enhance the team and why? 2 credits

  • A. A person with the ability to complete tasks
  • B. A quality assurance officer
  • C. A person with in-depth technical skills
  • D. A person who brings new ideas to the team

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 10

Statement Coverage will not check for the following:

  • A. Missing Statements
  • B. Unused Branches
  • C. Dead Code
  • D. Unused Statement

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 11

What type of test design technique is the most effective in testing screen-dialog flows?

  • A. Use case testing
  • B. Boundary value testing
  • C. Statement testing and coverage
  • D. State transition testing

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 12
Consider the following pseudo code:
* 1 Begin
* 2 Read Time
* 3 If Time < 12 Then
* 4 Print(Time, "am")
* 5 Endif
* 6 If Time > 12 Then
* 7 Print(Time 12, "pm")
* 8 Endif
* 9 If Time = 12 Then
* 10 Print (Time, "noon")
* 11 Endif
* 12 End
How many test cases are needed to achieve 100 per cent decision coverage?

  • A. 1
  • B. 2
  • C. 3
  • D. 4

Answer: C

Explanation:
The three decisions are in sequence and the conditions are all mutually exclusive (if any one is true the others must be false). Hence a test case that makes the first decision true will make the second and third decisions false and so on.
So test case 1 (say Time = 6) would exercise the path True, False, False, test case 2 (say Time = 15) would exercise the path False, True, False. Test case 3 would have to be Time = 12. This combination achieves 100 per cent decision coverage because each decision has been exercised through its true and its false outcomes.

NEW QUESTION 13

A number of options have been suggested for the level of independence to be employed for the testing on the next project, and are shown below.

  • A. External test specialists perform non-functional testing.i
  • B. Testing is outsourced.ii
  • C. Testing is carried out by the developer.i
  • D. A separate test team carries out the testing.
  • E. Testing is performed by the business.v
  • F. Testing is performed by a different developer.Which of the following orders the above in a correct order of independence? 1 credit
  • G. i, ii, iv, vi
  • H. ii, i, v, vi
  • I. ii, v, i, iii
  • J. i, iv, v, vi

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 14

A live defect has been found where a code component fails to release memory after it has finished using it. Which of the following tools would have been the MOST effective at detecting this defect prior to live
implementation?

  • A. Dynamic analysis tool
  • B. Monitoring tool
  • C. Configuration management tool
  • D. Coverage measurement tool

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 15

An input field takes the year of birth between 1900 and 2004. The boundary values for testing this field are:

  • A. 0,1900,2004,2005
  • B. 1900, 2004
  • C. 1899,1900,2004,2005
  • D. 1899, 1900, 1901,2003,2004,2005

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 16

Which of the following defects is most likely to be found by a test harness?

  • A. Variance from programming standards.
  • B. A defect in middleware.
  • C. Memory leaks.
  • D. Regression defects.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Variance from programming standards defects (option (A)) are found during the review or static testing process. Therefore a test harness is unlikely to find a defect in programming standards.
Memory leak defects (option (C)) could potentially be found by a test harness designed to run many test cases. Regression defects (option (D)) could be found using many types of test tool.
Defects in middleware (option (B)) are generally more likely to be found by a test harness or a dynamic analysis tool than by any other type of tool.

NEW QUESTION 17

Explain how the above mentioned report may differ from a report that you produce for the project manager, who is a test specialist Select TWO items from the following options that can be used to report to the project manager and would not be included in a report to senior management. 1 credit

  • A. Show details on effort spent
  • B. List of all outstanding defects with their priority and severity
  • C. Give product risk status
  • D. Show trend analysis
  • E. State recommendations for release

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 18

In the MASPAR case study..?

  • A. Security failures were the result of untested parts of code
  • B. The development team achieved complete statement and branch coverage but missed a serious bug in the MASPAR operating system
  • C. An error in the code was so obscure that you had to test the function with almost every input value to find its two special-case failures
  • D. All the above

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 19

Which of the following are 'Exit Criteria?'

  • A. Acceptance criteria, completion criteria, pass/fail criteria.
  • B. Coverage of code, schedule, estimates of defect density.
  • C. The last executable statement within a component.
  • D. Cost overruns.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 20

Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phase:

  • A. Test Analysis and Design
  • B. Test Implementation and execution
  • C. Test Closure Activities
  • D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 21

What is retesting?

  • A. Running the same test again in the same circumstances to reproduce the problem.
  • B. A cursory run through a test pack to see if any new errors have been introduced.
  • C. Checking that the predetermined exit criteria for the test phase have been met.
  • D. Running a previously failed test against new software/data/documents to see if the problem is solved.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 22

Which of the following is a valid objective of testing? [K1]

  • A. Correcting defects
  • B. Locating defects in the code
  • C. Preventing defects
  • D. Ensuring no defects are present

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 23

What content would be in an incident report if that incident report was based on the IEEE 829 Standard for SoftwareTest Documentation?
(i)Identification of configuration items of the software or system. (ii)Software or system lifecycle process in which the incident was observed. (iii)Description of the anomaly to enable reproduction of the incident. (iv)Number of occurrences of the incident.
(v) Classification of the cause of the incident for metrics and for reporting purposes. Number of correct answers: 1

  • A. i, ii, iii
  • B. ii, iii
  • C. i, iii, iv
  • D. i, ii, iii, v

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 24

ISEB-SWT2 dumps exhibit
The decision table above reflects a golf club's pricing structure for green fees and buggy/cart hire. What is the expected result (actions) for each of the following two test cases (TC1 and TC2)?
* TC 1 - Paul is not a full member, is a Loyalty Card holder and requests to play 18 holes with a buggy/cart
* TC 2 - Cheryl is not at full member, doesn't have a Loyalty Card and requests to play 9 holes with a buggy/cart

  • A. TC1 - £23 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - £21 total charge including buggy hire
  • B. TC1 - £18 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - £16 total charge but no buggy allowed
  • C. TC1 - £23 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - £16 total charge but no buggy allowed
  • D. TC1 - £17 total charges but no buggy allowed; TC2 - £21 total charge including buggy hire

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 25

Given is the following defect removal chart reported at the end of system testing - showing total defects detected and closed defects (fixed and successfully retested). A number of open defects are classified as critical. All tests have been executed.
ISEB-SWT2 dumps exhibit
Based on the chart above, what is the most appropriate next test phase? 1 credit

  • A. Acceptance testing to verify the business process
  • B. Acceptance testing to verify operational requirements
  • C. Requirements testing as part of testing regulatory compliance
  • D. Another system test cycle to verify defect resolution

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 26

A garden irrigation system allows the user to specify 2 inputs:
* 1. Frequency - The number of times the system should be automatically switched on per day; minimum once per day, maximum 5 times
* 2. Duration - The duration of operation, in whole minutes, each time it is switched on; ranging from 1 to 60 Applying 2-value boundary value analysis which of the following options has the correct test set of valid and
invalid boundary values?

  • A. Frequency 1, 5; Duration 1, 60
  • B. Frequency 0, 1, 5, 6; Duration 59 seconds, 1 minute, 60 minutes, 60 minutes 1 second
  • C. Frequency 0, 1, 5, 6; Duration 0, 1, 30, 60, 61
  • D. Frequency 0, 1, 2, 5, 6; Duration 0, 1, 30, 60, 61

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 27

Why is independent testing important? [K1]

  • A. Because independent testers make fewer assumptions than developers
  • B. Because independent testers are isolated from the development team
  • C. Because independent testers can verify assumptions made during specification and implementation of the system
  • D. Because independent testers have a greater sense of responsibility for quality than developers

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 28

How does software testing contribute to the quality of delivered software? [K2]

  • A. By detecting and removing all the defects in the delivered code and ensuring that all tests adhere to the quality standards set for the project
  • B. By measuring reliability of the software and ensuring that it is always above 99.99%
  • C. By identifying root causes of defects from past projects and using the lessons learned to improve processes and thus help to reduce the defect count
  • D. By detecting all deviations from coding good practice and ensuring that these are corrected

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 29

Which of the following would NOT be a common metric used for monitoring test preparation and execution?

  • A. Number of Test cases passed and failed
  • B. Percentage of planned test cases designed
  • C. Number of test plan review comments
  • D. Percentage of tasks complete in test environment preparation

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 30

Instead of having an independent test team within the company, the company is considering to outsource testing. What are THREE key challenges that are typical for outsourcing? 1 credit

  • A. Test environment more complex
  • B. Define expectation for tasks and deliverables
  • C. Clear channels of communications
  • D. Possibly different cultures
  • E. Testing of non-functional requirements
  • F. Audit trail from requirements to test cases
  • G. Applying test automation

Answer: BCD

NEW QUESTION 31
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